What part or lot did man have in the composition of the Bible? None whatever. Its very words are the words of God. "All Scripture is given by inspiration of God." No part of it was of human origination, "for the prophecy came not at any time by the will of man" (2 Pet. 1:21). Did not holy men of God speak "moved by the Holy Spirit"? And how did they then record what the Holy Spirit communicated to them - in words of man's selecting? Nay verily, "not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Spirit teacheth" (1 Cor. 2:13). Balaam longed to speak otherwise than he did; but he could not. Caiaphas prophesied "not of himself" (John 11:51). Pilate was asked to make a change in the one sentence which God moved him to write, but he declared "What I have written I have written" (John 19:22). God acted sovereignly in the writing of the Scriptures as in everything else. The very words were chosen by Him; and did He not sovereignly choose? Did He take counsel with either angels or men as to the words He should select for the communicating of His thoughts? No indeed.